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National Testing Service NTS Sample Paper NAT IIP

National Testing Service NTS Sample Paper NAT IIP

Sample Paper NAT IIP

 

 

Instructions

 

 

Total number of Sections = 08

Total number of Questions = 50

Time Allowed = 60 minutes

 

 

The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.

 

Right Answer Keys are at the end of Exercise.

 

 

Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.

 

 

 


VERBAL

 

Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to D) below each.

 

  1. 1.    Ocean currents play a _____ role in setting long-term climate _____.

 

  1. A.       vital … date
  2. B.       important … variations
  3. C.        major … patterns
  4. D.       unusual … changes

 

Each question below consists of a related pair of words, followed by five lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

 

  1. 2.    LIQUID: HYDRAULICS::

 

  1. A.       motion: dynamics
  2. B.       water: hydroponics
  3. C.        data: statistics
  4. D.       music: eurythmics

 

Read the passage to answer question 3-8

 

No actual black hole has yet been located or studied, but the concept has provided endless imaginative fodder for science fiction writers and endless theoretical fodder for physicists and astrophysicists.

Black holes are one of the more exotic theoretical manifestations of general relativity. The standard model for the formation of a black hole involves the collapse of a large star. For extremely massive stars that are four to five times the mass of our sun, the exclusion principle—the resistance between the molecular particles within the star as they are compressed—will not be strong enough to offset the gravity generated by the star’s own mass. The star’s increasing density will overwhelm the exclusion principle. What follows is runaway gravitational collapse. With no internal force to stop it, the star will simply continue to collapse in on itself, until it reaches a point of infinite density and zero volume, a phenomenon known as a singularity.

The star now disappears from the perceivable universe, like a cartoon character who jumps into a hole and pulls the hole in after him. What this process leaves behind is a different kind of hole—a profound disturbance in spacetime, a region where gravity is so intense that nothing, not even light, can escape from it. Any object falling within the boundary of a black hole will be sucked in and will disappear from our universe forever.

What would happen to an object, such as an astronaut, as it vanished into the black hole? Physicists have been amusing themselves with this question for years. Most believe that the astronaut would be destroyed by the intense gravitational forces within the black hole, or would explode in a flash of gamma rays as he or she approached the singularity at the hole’s core. Theoretically, an astronaut who managed to survive the passage would experience some very strange things, including acute time distortion, which would enable him or her to know, in a few brief seconds, the entire future of the universe in all its detail.

  1. 3.    The word “fodder” is closest in meaning to:

 

  1. A.       material
  2. B.       stories
  3. C.        support 
  4. D.       problems

 

  1. 4.    The opposing force between the molecular particles inside a star is called:

 

  1. A.       general relativity
  2. B.       the exclusion principle
  3. C.        infinite density
  4. D.       a singularity

 

  1. 5.    The word “offset” could best be replaced by:

 

  1. A.       carry
  2. B.       arrange
  3. C.        overflow
  4. D.       counteract

 

  1. 6.    It can be concluded that light:

 

  1. A.       destroys a black hole
  2. B.       can barely reveal a black hole
  3. C.        does not exist near a black hole
  4. D.       originates in spacetime

 

  1. 7.    Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the possible fate of an astronaut who falls into a black hole?

 

  1. A.       Experience of amusement
  2. B.       Death by gamma rays
  3. C.        Knowledge of the universe
  4. D.       Destruction by gravity

 

  1. 8.    It can be inferred from the passage that black holes are:

 

  1. A.       soon to be located and studied
  2. B.       a scientific impossibility
  3. C.        the key to the entire future of the universe
  4. D.       a source of inspiration and entertainment

 

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

 

  1. 9.    PHYSICAL:

 

  1. A.       bodily
  2. B.       mental
  3. C.        material
  4. D.       corporeal

 

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized ones.

 

10. LUSTROUS:

 

  1. A.       dull
  2. B.       wicked
  3. C.        inaccurate
  4. D.       candid
  5. E.        glossy


ANALYTICAL REASONING

 

Questions 11-14

 

The supervisor of a commuter airline is schedul­ing pilots to fly the round-trip from City X to City Y. The trip takes only two hours, and the airline has one round-trip flight in the morning and one round-trip flight in the afternoon, each day, Monday through Friday. Pilots must be sched­uled in accordance with the following rules:

 

Only W, X and Y can fly the morning flight.

Only V, X and Z can fly the afternoon flight.

No pilot may fly twice on the same day.

No pilot may fly on two consecutive days.

X must fly the Wednesday morning flight.

Z must fly the Tuesday afternoon flight.

 

11. Which of the following must be true?

 

  1. A.       W flies the Monday morning flight
  2. B.       X flies the Monday afternoon flight
  3. C.        Y flies the Tuesday morning flight
  4. D.       W flies the Thursday morning flight
  5. E.        Z flies the Thursday afternoon flight

 

12. If X flies on Friday morning, which of the fol­lowing must be true?

 

  1. A.       X does not fly on Monday afternoon
  2. B.       V flies on Friday afternoon
  3. C.        W flies Thursday morning
  4. D.       Y flies Thursday morning
  5. E.        Neither W nor Y flies Thursday morning

 

13. If X flies only one morning flight during the week, which of the following must be true?

 

  1. A.       W flies exactly two days during the week
  2. B.       X flies exactly three days during the week
  3. C.        Y flies only one day during the week
  4. D.       Z flies Monday afternoon and Friday afternoon
  5. E.        X flies more times during the week than V

 

14. If W is not scheduled to fly at all during the week, all of the following must be true EXCEPT

 

  1. A.       X flies on Monday morning
  2. B.       V flies on Monday afternoon
  3. C.        Y flies on Thursday morning
  4. D.       Z flies on Friday afternoon
  5. E.        X flies on Friday morning

 

 

There are those who claim that reductions in the spending on and deployment of weapons systems would result in a so-called “climate of peace,” thereby diminishing the likelihood of armed conflict. The facts show otherwise. These self-proclaimed pacifists are either the victims or the propagators of a false argument.

 

15. Which of the following is an assumption under­lying the conclusion of the passage above?

 

  1. A.       Military actions involving our forces can be instigated by any number of different factors
  2. B.       Our buildup of weapons systems and combat personnel has prevented our adversaries from increasing their own spending on defense
  3. C.        The increased defense spending of the past 10 years has lessened the need for signifi­cant military expenditure in future decades
  4. D.       At the present time, state-of-the-art weapons systems and the augmentation of combat personnel are equally important to a nation’s defense
  5. E.        An established correlation between greater spending on weapons systems and a decreased incidence of conflict will persist

 

Questions 16-19

 

An obedience school is experimenting with a new train­ing system. To test the system, three trainers (Luqman, Mehreen, and Omama) and three dogs (Lassie, Mugs, and Onyx) are assigned to three different rooms, one trainer, and one dog per room. The initial assignment is as follows:

 

Room 1: Luqman and Lassie

Room 2: Mehreen and Mugs

Room 3: Omama and Onyx

 

The participants have learned five different com­mands, each of which they will execute as soon as the command is given.

 

Command W requires the trainer in Room 1 to move to Room 2, the trainer in Room 2 to move to Room 3, and the trainer in Room 3 to move to Room 1.

Command X requires the dogs in Rooms 1 and 2 to change places.

Command Y requires the dogs in Rooms 2 and 3 to change places.

Command Z requires the dogs in Rooms 3 and 1 to change places.

Command A requires each of the dogs to go to the room containing the trainer it was matched with in the initial assignment.

 

16. If the participants in the initial assignment are given exactly one command, Command W, which of the following will be true in the resulting arrangement?

 

  1. A.       Omama and Mugs will be in the same room
  2. B.       Mehreen will be in Room 3
  3. C.        Mehreen and Lassie will be in the same room
  4. D.       Luqman will be in Room 3
  5. E.        Luqman and Onyx will be in the same room

17. Which of the following commands or series of commands will yield a final arrangement in which Onyx is in Room 2?

 

  1. A.       One call of W
  2. B.       Two calls of X
  3. C.        Two calls of W followed by one call of A
  4. D.       Two calls of W followed by one call of Z
  5. E.        Two calls of X followed by one call of Z

 

18. Which of the following sequences of com­mands will yield a final arrangement in which Omama and Lassie are in Room 2?

 

  1. A.       X, Y, W
  2. B.       X, W, W
  3. C.        Z, W, A
  4. D.       X, Y, A, W
  5. E.        Z,W,W, X

 

19. Which of the following sequences of com­mands could result in a final arrangement in which Mehreen and Onyx are in Room 1, Omama and Mugs are in Room 2, and Luqman and Lassie are in Room 3?

 

  1. A.       Z, W, X
  2. B.       W, Y, Z
  3. C.        W, A, Y, W
  4. D.       W, Z, W, X
  5. E.        X, Z, W, W

 

Should present trends continue, within five years it will be cheaper for audio enthusiasts to build their stereo systems around sets of sepa­rate, high quality tuners and amplifiers, rather than around integrated tuners and amplifiers, known as receivers. While receivers have been considered the necessary compromise for those with budget restrictions, recent trends in retail pricing seem destined to change that percep­tion. The average retail price of a high-quality tuner has declined at a rate of 20 percent each of the last two years, and the average retail price of a high-quality amplifier has declined at the rate of 35 percent for each of those years. At the same time, the average retail price of integrated receivers has declined only 12 percent.

 

20. In evaluating the claim made in the passage above, information about which of the follow­ing would be most useful?

 

  1. A.       the average life expectancy of stereo tuners as compared to the average life expectancy of stereo amplifiers
  2. B.       the number of integrated receivers sold each year and the number of sets of sepa­rate tuners and amplifiers sold each year
  3. C.        the present average retail price of an inte­grated  receiver  and  the  present  average retail price of a tuner and amplifier set
  4. D.       the number of separate tuner and amplifi­er sets expected to be purchased over the next five years and the number of inte­grated receivers expected to be purchased over the next five years
  5. E.        the percentage of audio enthusiasts who prefer separate tuner and amplifier sets to integrated receivers

 

QUANTITATIVE

 

21. Of the 20 people who won prize money, 7 have come forward to claim their winnings. What percent of the people have not yet appeared?

 

A. 20%

B. 35%

C. 42%

D. 65%

E. 70%

 

22. What single discount is equivalent to two successive discounts of 10% and 15%?

 

A. 25%

B. 24%

C. 24.5%

D. 23.5%

E. 22%

 

23. If 27n= 9, then n =?

 

A. 4/3

B. 2

C. 8/3

D. 3

E. 8

 

24. If , =?

  1. A.       1.330
  2. B.       1.750
  3. C.        0.750
  4. D.       1.585
  5. E.        1.425

 

25. (a + 2i)(b – i) =?

 

A. a + b – i

B. ab + 2

C. ab + (2b – a)i + 2

D. ab – 2

E. ab + (2b – a)i – 2

 

26. If the result obtained by multiplying a number, x, by a number 1 less than itself is 4 less than multiplying x by itself, then x =?

 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

27. Which of the following is closest to the square root of ?

A. 0.25

B. 0.5

C. 0.6

D. 0.7

E. 0.8

 

28. The sum of five odd numbers is always:

 

A. even

B. divisible by three

C. divisible by five

D. a prime number

E. none of the above

 

29. If 3m < 48 and 2m > 24, then m could equal which of the following?

 

A. 10

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

E. 18

 

30. The area of a 2-foot-wide walk around a garden that is 30 feet long and 20 feet wide is:

 

A. 104 sq. ft.

B. 216 sq. ft.

C. 680 sq. ft.

D. 704 sq. ft.

E. 1416 sq. ft.

 

 


THERMODYNAMICS

 

31. A thermodynamics process in which temperature of the gas remains constant is called:

 

  1. A.       Isothermal
  2. B.       Adiabatic
  3. C.        Isochoric
  4. D.       Isobaric

 

32. According to the carrot theorem the efficiency of a reversible heat engine depends upon:

 

  1. A.       Temperature of condenser only
  2. B.       Temperature of boiler only
  3. C.        Temperature of condenser and boiler
  4. D.       Working substance

 

33. According to Third law of Thermodynamics, the entropy of a pure solid or liquid at the absolute temperature is:

 

  1. A.       Maximum
  2. B.       Zero
  3. C.        Independent of absolute temp
  4. D.       None of the above

 

34. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is:

 

  1. A.       4 RT
  2. B.       15 RT
  3. C.        9 RT
  4. D.       11 RT

 


 

WAVES AND OSCILLATIONS

 

35. The angular frequency is defined as:

 

  1. A.       W=

 

  1. B.       W=

 

  1. C.        W=

 

  1. D.       W= 2 r

 

36. The phase velocity for transverse traveling waves on continuous string depends upon:

 

  1. A.       Linear frequency
  2. B.       Angular frequency
  3. C.        Tension
  4. D.       Wave length

 

37. Impedance (z) of the medium to the propagation of waves is given as:

 

  1. A.      
  2. B.      
  3. C.       
  4. D.      

 

38. A cork floating in a calm lake is executing SHM of frequency f. When a boat passes close to the cork then the:

 

  1. A.       frequency becomes greater than f
  2. B.       frequency becomes less than f
  3. C.        frequency remains constant
  4. D.       none of the above

 

 

MODERN PHYSICS

 

39. In common base configuration of a transistor, the ratio of collector current to emitter current:

 

  1. A.       About 90%
  2. B.       100%
  3. C.        About 50%
  4. D.       Less than 50%

 

40. Kinetic energy of charged particle moving in constant magnetic field remains:

 

  1. A.       Zero
  2. B.       Constant
  3. C.        Fluctuating
  4. D.       None of the above

 

41. Average life of a radioactive element is:

 

  1. A.       Equal to its half life
  2. B.       Less than its half life
  3. C.        Greater than its half life
  4. D.       None of the above

 

42. Three plane mirrors are mutually perpendicular. The maximum number of images which can be formed is:

 

  1. A.       7
  2. B.       3
  3. C.        9
  4. D.       6

 


MECHANICS

 

43. When three vectors lie in the same plane, their scalar triple product is equal to:

 

  1. A.       Maximum
  2. B.       Zero
  3. C.        Negative volume of parallelopiped
  4. D.       Volume of parallelepiped

 

44. A body which is thrown upward at a certain angle to the horizontal is called:

 

  1. A.       Rocket
  2. B.       Parabola
  3. C.        Projectile
  4. D.       None of the above

 

45. The time rate of change of angular momentum is equal to:

 

  1. A.       Force
  2. B.       Torque
  3. C.        Work
  4. D.       Acceleration

 

46. A particle starts from rest with acceleration 2  in a circle of radius 2 m. Find its linear speed after 6 s?

 

  1. A.       12
  2. B.       24
  3. C.        4
  4. D.       None of the above

 

 

 

ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

 

47. Flux density is defined as:

 

  1. A.       Magnetic flux per unit area of the specimen
  2. B.       Magnetic flux per unit volume of the specimen
  3. C.        Magnetic flux per unit length of the specimen
  4. D.       None of the above

 

48. Magnetic field due to current in a solenoid is given as:

 

  1. A.       H=4 i
  2. B.       H=4 ni
  3. C.        H=
  4. D.       H=

 

49. The current produced in condenser leads the A.C voltage by:

 

  1. A.       180˚
  2. B.       360˚
  3. C.        90˚
  4. D.       270˚

 

50. Capacitor A has charge q on it whereas B is uncharged. When the switch is ON, the charge appearing on B is:

 

  1. A.   Zero
  2. B.    
  3. C.    q
  4. D.   2q

 

 

 

 


                        Answer Keys

 

Q #.

Right Choice

1

C

2

A

3

A

4

B

5

D

6

C

7

A

8

D

9

B

10

E

11

E

12

B

13

A

14

D

15

E

16

B

17

C

18

B

19

C

20

C

21

D

22

D

23

C

24

D

25

C

26

D

27

D

28

E

29

C

30

B

31

A

32

C

33

B

34

D

35

B

36

C

37

B

38

C

39

A

40

B

41

C

42

A

43

B

44

C

45

B

46

A

47

A

48

B

49

C

50

A

 

National Testing Service NTS Sample Paper NAT IIP

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