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National Testing Service NTS Sample Paper NAT IIA

National Testing Service NTS Sample Paper NAT IIA

Sample Paper NAT IIA

 

 

Instructions

 

 

Total number of Sections = 07

Total number of Questions = 50

Time Allowed = 60 minutes

 

 

The Sample Paper is totally MCQ Based, consisting of Question statements and four/five (i.e. A-D/E) Answer choices. You have to select the correct answer choice.

 

Right Answer Keys are at the end of Exercise.

 

 

Note: This sample paper does not include quantitatively the same number of questions as there would be in actual paper. This is merely meant to provide conceptual guidance to the users or prospective candidates.

 

 

 


VERBAL

 

Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to D) below each.

 

  1. 1.    We are today living in a _____ world, a world where physical _____ matter little.

 

  1. A.       Blossoming … engagement
  2. B.       Computerized … deformities
  3. C.        Borderless … distances
  4. D.       Developed … hindrances

 

Each question below consists of a related pair of words, followed by five lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

 

  1. 2.    SOAP: CLEANSE::

 

  1. A.       Sponge: absorb
  2. B.       Sin: expiate
  3. C.        Iron: rust linen
  4. D.       Detergent: cosmic

 

  1. 3.    ENGAGEMENT: BANNS::

 

  1. A.       Death: obituary
  2. B.       News: proclamation
  3. C.        Education: whitepaper
  4. D.       Sentence: statement

 

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

 

  1. 4.    DILIGENT:

 

  1. A.       lazy
  2. B.       shirk
  3. C.        avoid
  4. D.       devoid

 

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized ones.

 

  1. 5.    UTOPIAN:

 

  1. A.       Perfect
  2. B.       Idealistic
  3. C.        Fanciful
  4. D.       Realistic

Read the passage to answer question 6-10

 

Culture refers to a group’s program for survival in and adaptation to its environment. The cultural program consists of knowledge, concepts, and values that are shared by group members through their symbols and systems of communication.

The United States, like other nations, has a shared set of values and symbols that form the core culture. This culture is shared to some extent by all the various cultural and ethnic groups that make up the nation. This core culture is difficult to describe because the United States is such a complex nation; it is easier to identify the core culture within an isolated premodern society. However, it is possible to assert that the political institutions reflecting some of the nation’s core values were heavily influenced not only by the British but also by the Native Americans, particularly those practices related to making group decisions.

A key concept in the U. S. core culture is the idea that “all men are created equal.” When the nation’s founding fathers expressed this idea in 1776, their conception of men was limited. White men without property, white women, and all African Americans and Native Americans were excluded. While the concept of equality had a limited meaning at that time, it has proven to be a powerful idea in the quest for civil rights in the United States. It remains an important part of the U. S. core culture and is still used by victimized groups to justify their struggles for equality.

 

  1. 6.    With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?

 

  1. A.       People generally view culture in terms of survival.
  2. B.       Americans believe their culture is superior to others.
  3. C.       The cultural program of a society is established by its political institutions.
  4. D.      Most people in a country share certain core values.

 

  1. 7.    Which of the following would NOT be included under the definition of “culture” in paragraph 1?

 

  1. A.        Educational system
  2. B.        Concept of humor
  3. C.        Skin and eye color
  4. D.       Concept of human rights

 

  1. 8.    In the under lined lines, in paragraph 2, the author suggests that:

 

  1. A.       the United States is an isolated premodern society
  2. B.       the culture of a premodern society is simpler than the U. S. culture
  3. C.       the United States has no core culture
  4. D.      very little is known about societies that have developed in isolation

 

 

 

  1. 9.    The author implies that the original idea that “all men are created equal”:

 

  1. A.       applied only to white men who owned property
  2. B.       included only people who were born in the United States
  3. C.       was a value shared by most Americans in 1776
  4. D.      was not part of the core culture until 1776

 

10. In paragraph 3, the author implies that:

 

  1. A.       the struggle for equality is ongoing in the United States
  2. B.       some people do not have to struggle for civil rights
  3. C.       the idea that “all men are created equal” is not part of the core   culture
  4. D.      core values tend to victimize some groups of people


ANALYTICAL REASONING

 

Questions 11-14

 

Six students of foreign languages, Ameena, Bushra, Chand, Dilawer, Ehsan, and Farah, are seated together. They do not all speak the same language, but enough of them speak the same languages that they can translate for each other.

 

Ameena and Dilawer speak only Urdu, Arabic and Hindi.

Bushra speaks only Urdu, Arabic and Chinese.

Chand speaks only Pushto and Hindi.

Ehsan speaks only Hindi.

Farah speaks only Chinese.

 

11. Which language is spoken by the most students?

 

  1. A.       Urdu
  2. B.       Arabic
  3. C.       Pushto
  4. D.      Hindi
  5. E.       Chinese

 

12. Which of the following students could talk to each other without a translator?

 

  1. A.       Ameena and Farah
  2. B.       Bushra and Chand
  3. C.        Bushra and Ehsan
  4. D.       Ehsan and Farah
  5. E.        Bushra and Farah

 

13. Who could act as a translator for a conversation between Bushra and Chand?

 

  1.                                         I.     Ameena
  2.                                       II.    Dilawer
  3.                                     III.    Ehsan
  4.                                      IV.    Farah

 

  1. A.       I only
  2. B.       I & II
  3. C.        I, II & III
  4. D.       II, III & IV
  5. E.        I, II & IV

 

14. If Chand and Farah wish to talk to each other, what is the fewest number of translators they would need?

 

  1. A.       0
  2. B.       1
  3. C.       2
  4. D.      3
  5. E.       4

Studies have shown that families who install smoke detectors and own fire extinguishers have a reduced risk of losing a child in a house fire. Therefore, no family who installs smoke detectors and owns a fire extinguisher will lose a child in a house fire.

 

15. Of the following, the best criticism of the argument above is that the argument does not

 

  1. A.       take into account the possibility of losing a child in a house fire despite all precaution­ary measures     
  2. B.       indicate that fire extinguishers are effective during early stages of a fire
  3. C.        cite the fact that smoke detectors have proven to be effective in waking sleeping children during a house fire
  4. D.       differentiate between the two major causes of house fires: cooking and heating
  5. E.        take into account that families who buy smoke detectors are also more likely to purchase fire insurance

 

LSD is a drug known to cause synesthesia, a phenomenon in which sensory input somehow becomes interchanged in the brain: a person with synesthesia might smell a symphony, hear sun­light, or taste a pinprick. While most cases are drug induced, some people suffer from synesthesia in various forms since birth.

 

16. Which of the following can be most safely inferred from the information above?

 

  1. A.       Synesthesia is not always a drug-induced phenomenon
  2. B.       Some great artists of this century have been known for their synesthetic proclivities
  3. C.        LSD is an addictive drug
  4. D.       Synesthesia is rarely bothersome to those who experience it
  5. E.        Synesthesia at birth is a result of mothers who have tried LSD

 

Palindromes are easier to solve than acrostics, but acrostics are more difficult to create than palindromes. Rebuses are more difficult to solve than acrostics, yet rebuses are easier to create than palindromes.

 

  1. 17.  If the above information is true, it must also be true that

 

  1. A.           acrostics are more difficult to create than rebuses
  2. B.           palindromes are more difficult to solve than rebuses
  3. C.           rebuses are easier to solve than acrostics
  4. D.          acrostics are easier to create than rebuses
  5. E.           rebuses are easier to solve than palindromes

 

 

 

 

 

 

Light bulbs that emit lower-intensity light save energy by requiring less electricity. Therefore, if homeowners use only low-intensity light bulbs, their electric bills will decrease.

 

18. Which of the following represents a necessary assumption for the above argument?

 

  1. A.       Homeowners are always concerned with lowering their utility bills.
  2. B.       By lowering electricity use, homeowners can help decrease pollution levels in their communities.
  3. C.        Low-intensity light bulbs are less expensive than more standard light bulbs.
  4. D.       The low-intensity light bulbs are as effective in providing light as standard light bulbs.
  5. E.        Low-intensity light bulbs have been shown to create less stress on eyes, and people using low-intensity light bulbs have fewer medical problems.

 

Sixty-five percent of the graduating class of Hamilton High School, a public high school in the middle of the city, will go on to attend college after graduation. The Harris Academy High School, an expensive private school in the same area, will send approximately 95 percent of its graduates to college. Many parents, realizing this informa­tion, believe that sending their children to Harris Academy High School will mean that their children will get a better education than they would get at Hamilton High School.

 

19. Which of the following statements, if true, would most indicate the flaws in the parents’ reasoning?

 

  1. A.       Until 1992, Harris Academy High School was exclusively a girls’ school, but Hamilton High School has always been coeducational.
  2. B.       Harris Academy High School requires students to pass an admission examination before entering, but Hamilton High School admits all applicants who live in the city.
  3. C.        Hamilton High School has problems with severe student violence during school hours.
  4. D.       Harris Academy High School has a higher percentage of students attending Ivy League colleges than any other high school in the state.
  5. E.        Hamilton High School receives its funding from local property taxes, while Harris Academy High School receives funding from tuition costs and from alumni donations.

 

Wine, cheese, butter, and raisins are all examples of early techniques to preserve food. In modern times, food scientists have developed other techniques such as dehydration, hermetic sealing, and radiation. Of these, radiation is the most con­troversial because preliminary studies have shown that radiation alters the natural chemical bonds in fruits and vegetables. Instead of providing salutary effects, eating radiated produce may well introduce irritating chemicals into the body, cre­ating a possible health hazard.

20. Which of the following, if true, supports the conclusion that eating radiated produce poses a possible health hazard?

 

  1. A.       Radiation affects only those chemical bonds associated with water, that is, hydrogen and oxygen
  2. B.       Radiation kills microorganisms that hasten food decay
  3. C.        The radiation-induced bonds are unlike any of those found in non-radiated produce
  4. D.       Certain microorganisms, namely those found in yogurt cultures, are essential for proper digestion
  5. E.        Radiation has no effect on foods preserved by drying

 

 

QUANTITATIVE

 

21. What is the volume of a cube with a surface area of 216?

 

  1. A.      36
  2. B.      66
  3. C.      216
  4. D.      250
  5. E.      300

                                               

22. PTCL wants to interlink 5 cities and the links should be between every two cities, how many links will be formed?

 

  1. A.      11
  2. B.      10
  3. C.      20
  4. D.      None of the above

 

  1. 23.  is the same as:

 

  1. A.      0.0075
  2. B.      0.0133
  3. C.      0.075
  4. D.      0.1333
  5. E.      0.75

 

24. Which of the following shows the CORRECT meaning of 407?

 

  1. A.      (4 x 10) + (7 x 1)
  2. B.      (4 x 10 x10) + (0 x 10) + (7 x 1)
  3. C.      (4+0+7) x (100)
  4. D.      (4 x 1) + (0 x 10) + (7 x 10 x 10)
  5. E.      (4 x 1) + (7 x 10)

 

25. What is the ratio of 2 gallons to 3 quarts?

 

  1. A.      8 to 3
  2. B.      3 to 8
  3. C.      3 to 2
  4. D.      2 to 3
  5. E.      1 to 6

 

26. 10% of 360 is how much more than 5% of 360?

 

  1. A.   5
  2. B.   9
  3. C.    18
  4. D.   36
  5. E.    48

 

 

27. Ahmad’s average score on his first 3 tests is 90. If his average on his last 2 tests is 80, what is his average score for all 5 tests?

 

  1. A.       85
  2. B.       86
  3. C.       87
  4. D.      88
  5. E.       89

 

28. Alia drives 20 miles from her home to the store at a speed of 30 miles per hour. If she makes the return trip home at a speed of 40 miles per hour, what is the total amount of time she spent driving?

 

  1. A.       35 minutes
  2. B.       50 minutes
  3. C.       1 hour and 10 minutes
  4. D.      1 hour and 30 minutes
  5. E.       1 hour and 50 minutes

 

29. If 8x + 8y = 64, what is the average of x and y?

 

  1. A.       16
  2. B.       8
  3. C.       4
  4. D.      2
  5. E.       It cannot be determined from the given information

 

30. 0.58 × 0.14 =?

 

  1. A.       812
  2. B.       8.12
  3. C.       81.2
  4. D.      0.812
  5. E.       0.0812

 


ISLAMIYAT

 

31. Event of Miraj  took place on:

 

  1. A.       27th Ramzan
  2. B.       12 Rabial Awal
  3. C.       27th Rajab
  4. D.      10 Shawal

 

32. “We sent you not but as a blessing for the _______.” (Al-Quran)

 

  1. A.       World
  2. B.       Muslims
  3. C.       Universe
  4. D.      Humanity

 

33. “Indeed in the Messenger of Allah, you have for you, the best ___________.(Al-Quran)

 

  1. A.       Character
  2. B.       Model
  3. C.       Example
  4. D.      precedence

 

34. Najashi was King of:

 

  1. A.       Egypt
  2. B.       Ethopia
  3. C.       Sudan
  4. D.      Jordan

 

35. Prophet Ebrahim conforted with _______.

 

  1. A.       Firewn
  2. B.       Namrud
  3. C.       Qaisar
  4. D.      Kisra

 

 

 

PAKISTAN STUDIES

 

36. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan _______ the Two Nation Theory.

 

  1. A.       Presented
  2. B.       Revived
  3. C.       Opposed
  4. D.      Supported

 

37. When did Pakistan become member of UNO?

 

  1. A.       Sep. 30, 1948
  2. B.       June 30 1947
  3. C.       Sep. 30, 1947
  4. D.      Oct. 24 , 1950

 

38. When did Pakistan become Islamic Jamhuria?

 

  1. A.       Mar. 23 , 1957
  2. B.       Mar. 23 , 1956
  3. C.       Mar. 23 , 1972
  4. D.      Aug. 15 , 1948

 

39. When did the national assembly approve the first constitution of Pakistan?

 

  1. A.       On Mar, 23 , 1949
  2. B.       On Feb, 29 , 1956
  3. C.       On Aug, 14 , 1947
  4. D.      On Mar, 23 , 1950

 

40. When was Sui Gas first discovered in Pakistan?

 

  1. A.       1959
  2. B.       1952
  3. C.       1981
  4. D.      1989

 

 

 

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

 

41. National People’s Congress is the parliament of:

 

  1. A.       Russia
  2. B.       UK
  3. C.       France
  4. D.      China

 

42. Which one of the five words below tells BEST what a sword is?

 

  1. A.       Cut
  2. B.       Weapon
  3. C.       Officer
  4. D.      Tool
  5. E.       Fight

 

43. A banana is to the peeling and an ear of corn is to the husk as an egg is to:

 

  1. A.       Omelet
  2. B.       Shell
  3. C.       Cob
  4. D.      Hen
  5. E.       Food

 

44. If I find a kind of plant that was never seen before, I have made a(n):

 

  1. A.       Invention
  2. B.       Adoption
  3. C.       Creation
  4. D.      Novelty
  5. E.       Discovery

 

45. Which of the following diseases is caused by the bite of mad dog?

 

  1. A.       Hydrocele
  2. B.       Hydrophobia
  3. C.       Hydrocephatus
  4. D.      Hydroperitoneum

 

 

CURRENT AFFAIRS

 

46. Who is the present Chief Justice of Pakistan?

 

  1. A.    Irshad Hasan Khan
  2. B.    Nazim Hussain Siddique
  3. C.    Iftikhar Mohammad Chaudhry
  4. D.    Sheikh Riaz Ahmad
  5. E.    None of the above

 

47. Present Secretary-General of the United Nations, is:

 

  1. A.       Ban Ki-Moon
  2. B.       Kofi Annan
  3. C.        Kurt Waldheim
  4. D.       Condoleeza Rice

 

48. The present Prime Minister of England is:

 

  1. A.    Tony Blair
  2. B.    Gordon Brown
  3. C.    John Major
  4. D.    Margaret Thatcher

 

49. Recently “The Friends of Pakistan Conference” was held in:

 

  1. A.    China
  2. B.    Korea
  3. C.    Japan
  4. D.    Hong Kong

 

50. Who is the President of USA?

 

  1. A.    Barack Obama
  2. B.    Condoleezza Rice
  3. C.    Nancy Reagan
  4. D.    Hillary Clinton

 

 

 

 

 


                        Answer Keys

 

Q #.

Right Choice

1

C

2

A

3

A

4

A

5

B

6

D

7

C

8

B

9

A

10

A

11

D

12

E

13

B

14

C

15

A

16

A

17

A

18

D

19

B

20

C

21

C

22

B

23

C

24

B

25

A

26

B

27

C

28

C

29

C

30

E

31

C

32

C

33

B

34

B

35

B

36

B

37

C

38

B

39

B

40

B

41

D

42

B

43

B

44

E

45

B

46

C

47

A

48

B

49

C

50

A

 

National Testing Service NTS Sample Paper NAT IIA

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One Response to “National Testing Service NTS Sample Paper NAT IIA”

  1. ariba says:

    can i solve these paper on;ine …please rpy soon

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